Updated Dec 23, 2021 Certification Exam CAPM Dumps - Practice Test Questions [Q158-Q179]

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Updated Dec 23, 2021  Certification Exam CAPM Dumps - Practice Test Questions

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NEW QUESTION 158
The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

  • A. schedule
  • B. approach
  • C. product
  • D. objectives

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 159
Projects are authorized by which of the following individuals?

  • A. Sponsors
  • B. Stakeholders
  • C. Functional managers
  • D. Project managers

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

 

NEW QUESTION 160
Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?

  • A. Mandatory
  • B. Internal
  • C. External
  • D. Discretionary

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation
Explanation:
6.3.2.2 Dependency Determination
Dependencies may be characterized by the following attributes: mandatory or discretionary, internal or external, as described below. Dependency has four attributes, but two can be applicable at the same time in following ways: mandatory external dependencies, mandatory internal dependencies, discretionary external dependencies, or discretionary internal dependencies.
Mandatory dependencies. Mandatory dependencies are those that are legally or contractually required or

inherent in the nature of the work. Mandatory dependencies often involve physical limitations, such as on a construction project, where it is impossible to erect the superstructure until after the foundation has been built, or on an electronics project, where a prototype has to be built before it can be tested. Mandatory dependencies are also sometimes referred to as hard logic or hard dependencies. Technical dependencies may not be mandatory. The project team determines which dependencies are mandatory during the process of sequencing the activities. Mandatory dependencies should not be confused with assigning schedule constraints in the scheduling tool.
Discretionary dependencies. Discretionary dependencies are sometimes referred to as preferred logic,

preferential logic, or soft logic. Discretionary dependencies are established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences. Discretionary dependencies should be fully documented since they can create arbitrary total float values and can limit later scheduling options. When fast tracking techniques are employed, these discretionary dependencies should be reviewed and considered for Explanation:
4.1.2.1 Expert Judgment
Expert judgment is often used to assess the inputs used to develop the project charter. Expert judgment is applied to all technical and management details during this process. Such expertise is provided by any group or individual with specialized knowledge or training and is available from many sources, including:
Other units within the organization,

Consultants,

Stakeholders, including customers or sponsors,

Professional and technical associations,

Industry groups,

Subject matter experts (SME), and

Project management office (PMO).

Process: 4.2. Develop Project Management Plan
Definition: The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive project management plan. The project's integrated baselines and subsidiary plans may be included within the project management plan.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is a central document that defines the basis of all project work.
Inputs
1. Project charter
2. Outputs from other processes
3. Enterprise environmental factors
4. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
5. Expert judgment
6. Facilitation techniques
Outputs
7. Project management plan
4.2.3.1 Project Management Plan
The project management plan is the document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. It integrates and consolidates all of the subsidiary plans and baselines from the planning processes.
Project baselines include, but are not limited to:
Scope baseline (Section 5.4.3.1),

Schedule baseline (Section 6.6.3.1), and

Cost baseline (Section 7.3.3.1).

Subsidiary plans include, but are not limited to:
Scope management plan (Section 5.1.3.1),

Requirements management plan (Section 5.1.3.2),

Schedule management plan (Section 6.1.3.1),

Cost management plan (Section 7.1.3.1),

Quality management plan (Section 8.1.3.1),

Process improvement plan (Section 8.1.3.2),

Human resource management plan (Section 9.1.3.1),

Communications management plan (Section 10.1.3.1),

Risk management plan (Section 11.1.3.1),

Procurement management plan (Section 12.1.3.1), and

Stakeholder management plan (Section 13.2.3.1).

Among other things, the project management plan may also include the following:
Life cycle selected for the project and the processes that will be applied to each phase;

Details of the tailoring decisions specified by the project management team as follows:

○ Project management processes selected by the project management team,
○ Level of implementation for each selected process,
○ Descriptions of the tools and techniques to be used for accomplishing those processes, and
○ Description of how the selected processes will be used to manage the specific project, including the dependencies and interactions among those processes and the essential inputs and outputs.
Description of how work will be executed to accomplish the project objectives;

Change management plan that documents how changes will be monitored and controlled;

Configuration management plan that documents how Configuration management will be performed;

Description of how the integrity of the project baselines will be maintained;

Requirements and techniques for communication among stakeholders; and

Key management reviews for content, the extent of, and timing to address, open issues and pending

decisions.
The project management plan may be either summary level or detailed, and may be composed of one or more subsidiary plans. Each of the subsidiary plans is detailed to the extent required by the specific project. Once the project management plan is baselined, it may only be changed when a change request is generated and approved through the Perform Integrated Change Control process.
modification or removal. The project team determines which dependencies are discretionary during the process of sequencing the activities.
External dependencies. External dependencies involve a relationship between project activities and non-

project activities. These dependencies are usually outside the project team's control. For example, the testing activity in a software project may be dependent on the delivery of hardware from an external source, or governmental environmental hearings may need to be held before site preparation can begin on a construction project. The project management team determines which dependencies are external during the process of sequencing the activities.
Internal dependencies. Internal dependencies involve a precedence relationship between project activities

and are generally inside the project team's control. For example, if the team cannot test a machine until they assemble it, this is an internal mandatory dependency. The project management team determines which dependencies are internal during the process of sequencing the activities.

 

NEW QUESTION 161
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

  • A. Executing
  • B. Initiating
  • C. Planning
  • D. Monitoring and Controlling

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
Executing Process Group
4.3 Direct and Manage Project Work
8.2 Perform Quality Assurance
9.2 Acquire Project Team
9.3 Develop Project Team
9.4 Manage Project Team
10.2 Manage Communications
12.2 Conduct Procurements
13.3 Manage Stakeholder Engagement

 

NEW QUESTION 162
Which of the following processes are within the Initiating Process Group?

  • A. Develop Project Management Plan and Identify Stakeholders
  • B. Develop Project Charter and Develop Project Scope Statement
  • C. Develop Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders
  • D. Develop Project Management Plan and Plan Communications

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Initiating Process Group
4.1 Develop Project Charter
13.1 Identify Stakeholders

 

NEW QUESTION 163
An output of the Validate Scope process is:

  • A. Change requests.
  • B. Work performance reports.
  • C. A requirements traceability matrix.
  • D. The scope management plan.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Process: 5.5 Validate Scope
Definition: The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it brings objectivity to the acceptance process and increases the chance of final product, service, or result acceptance by validating each deliverable.
Inputs
1. Project management plan
2. Requirements documentation
3. Requirements traceability matrix
4. Verified deliverables
5. Work performance data
Tools & Techniques
1. Inspection
2. Group decision-making techniques
Outputs
1. Accepted deliverables
2. Change requests
3. Work performance information
4. Project documents updates

 

NEW QUESTION 164
A project stakeholder is requesting changes to the project plan.
Which process group addresses this?

  • A. Planning Process Group
  • B. Initiating Process Group
  • C. Executing Process Group
  • D. Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 165
Deciding the phases of project life cycle would be considered a part of which of these knowledge areas?

  • A. Project Schedule Management
  • B. Project Resource Management
  • C. Project Integration Management
  • D. Project Scope Management

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 166
Which are required to create the schedule management plan?

  • A. Scope baseline, work breakdown structure (WBS), estimated costs, and milestone list
  • B. Resource management plan, organizational process assets, activity list, and business case
  • C. Activity list, project statement of work, project charter, and communications management plan
  • D. Enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, project charter, and project management plan

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 167
Why is tailoring in a project necessary?

  • A. Each project is unique
  • B. Requirements keep changing
  • C. An artifact must be produced
  • D. A tool or technique is required

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference: https://www.greycampus.com/opencampus/project-management-professional/project-lifecycle-and- tailoring

 

NEW QUESTION 168
Cost aggregation is typically performed by aggregating work packages in accordance with the:

  • A. Rough order of magnitude (ROM).
  • B. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
  • C. Cost of quality (COQ).
  • D. Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
7.3.2.1 Cost Aggregation
Cost estimates are aggregated by work packages in accordance with the WBS. The work package cost estimates are then aggregated for the higher component levels of the WBS (such as control accounts) and ultimately for the entire project.

 

NEW QUESTION 169
Which of the following is used to classify stakeholders based on their assessments of power, urgency, and legitimacy?

  • A. Directions of influence
  • B. Salience model
  • C. Stakeholder cube
  • D. Power interest grid

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference: https://pmstudycircle.com/2015/09/salience-model-to-analyze-project-stakeholders/

 

NEW QUESTION 170
Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

  • A. ETC
  • B. EV
  • C. PV
  • D. SPI

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
CPI = EV / AC

 

NEW QUESTION 171
Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

  • A. Perform Quality Assurance
  • B. Direct and Manage Project Work
  • C. Monitor and Control Project Work
  • D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume A

 

NEW QUESTION 172
A project manager is determining the amount of contingency needed for a project.
Which analysis is the project manager using?

  • A. Reserve analysis
  • B. Alternatives analysis
  • C. Simulation
  • D. What-if scenario analysis

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 173
Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

  • A. Define Activities
  • B. Estimate Activity Resources
  • C. Develop Schedule
  • D. Control Schedule

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.4.3.2 Resource Breakdown Structure
The resource breakdown structure is a hierarchical representation of resources by category and type.
Examples of resource categories include labor, material, equipment, and supplies. Resource types may include the skill level, grade level, or other information as appropriate to the project. The resource breakdown structure is useful for organizing and reporting project schedule data with resource utilization information.
Process: 6.4 Estimate Activity Resources
Definition: Activity Resources is the process of estimating the type and quantities of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it identifies the type, quantity, and characteristics of resources required to complete the activity which allows more accurate cost and duration estimates.
Inputs
1. Schedule management plan
2. Activity list
3. Activity attributes
4. Resource calendars
5. Risk register
6. Activity cost estimates
7. Enterprise environmental factors
8. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Expert judgment
2. Alternative analysis
3. Published estimating data
4. Bottom-up estimating
5. Project management software
Outputs
1. Activity resource requirements
2. Resource breakdown structure
3. Project documents updates

 

NEW QUESTION 174
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:

  • A. staff acquisition
  • B. recognition and rewards
  • C. compliance
  • D. training needs

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume B

 

NEW QUESTION 175
Which statement describes the relationship between Manage Quality process and Control Quality process?

  • A. Manage Quality and Control Quality are the same.
  • B. Control Quality is all about following planned process and procedures for quality, while Manage Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.
  • C. Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and procedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.
  • D. Manage Quality is part of Quality Management and Control Quality is a subset of the Stakeholder Management Process group.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference: https://www.project-management-prepcast.com/kunena/pmp-exam-discussion/7710-difference- between-manage-quality-and-control-quality

 

NEW QUESTION 176
Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

  • A. Risk categorization
  • B. Risk data quality assessment
  • C. Risk register
  • D. Risk urgency

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 177
Which of the following are outputs from the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)?

  • A. Project scope statement and accepted deliverables
  • B. Accepted deliverables and enterprise environmental factors
  • C. Scope baseline and work performance information
  • D. Scope baseline and project documents update

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://4squareviews.com/2018/04/13/6th-edition-pmbok-guide-process-5-4-create-wbs- outputs/

 

NEW QUESTION 178
Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

  • A. Selected sellers
  • B. Risk register updates
  • C. Project statement of work
  • D. Teaming agreements

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
12.2.3.1 Selected Sellers
The selected sellers are those who have been judged to be in a competitive range based upon the outcome of the proposal or bid evaluation, and who have negotiated a draft contract that will become the actual contract when an award is made. Final approval of all complex, high-value, high-risk procurements will generally require organizational senior management approval prior to award.
Process: 12.2 Conduct Procurements
Definition: The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it provides alignment of internal and external stakeholder expectations through established agreements.
Inputs
1. Procurement management plan
2. Procurement documents
3. Source selection criteria
4. Seller proposals
5. Project documents
6. Make-or-buy decisions
7. Procurement statement of work
8. Organizational process assets
Tools & Techniques
1. Bidder conference
2. Proposal evaluation techniques
3. Independent estimates
4. Expert judgment
5. Advertising
6. Analytical techniques
7. Procurement negotiations
Outputs
1. .Selected sellers
2. .Agreements
3. .Resource calendars
4. .Change requests
5. .Project management plan updates
6. .Project documents updates

 

NEW QUESTION 179
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The CAPM is an associate-level certification provided by the Project Management Institute (PMI) that creates a foundation for further advancement in this sphere. The CAPM certificate corresponds to global standards of the industry giving its holder plenty of pay perks and job opportunities so by passing its related CAPM test, you will prove your knowledge of the core best practices that are vital for understanding project management principles.


Job Positions and Salary

Having the PMI CAPM certification, you can apply for middle-level job positions in the project management field. The CAPM holder can get a job as an associate project manager, technical project manager, project coordinator-scheduler, business analyst, data analyst, etc. Speaking of the salaries for such individuals, PayScale states that the average annual income for CAPM certified specialists is about $67k.

 

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