Jan-2026 Latest Pass4sureCert PCCP Exam Dumps with PDF and Exam Engine Free Updated Today!
Following are some new PCCP Real Exam Questions!
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which type of firewall should be implemented when a company headquarters is required to have redundant power and high processing power?
- A. Physical
- B. Cloud
- C. Containerized
- D. Virtual
Answer: A
Explanation:
A physical firewall is ideal for environments like a company headquarters that require redundant power, high throughput, and dedicated hardware for maximum reliability and performance. It supports more robust failover and scalability compared to virtual or containerized options.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?
- A. Authorization
- B. Allowance
- C. Accounting
- D. Authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:
Authentication is the component of the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) framework that verifies user identities (e.g., via passwords, certificates, or biometrics) before granting access to network resources.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which service is encompassed by serverless architecture?
- A. Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)
- B. Security as a Service (SaaS)
- C. Authentication as a Service
- D. Function as a Service (FaaS)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Serverless architecture is primarily implemented through Function as a Service (FaaS), where developers write and deploy individual functions without managing the underlying infrastructure. The cloud provider handles scaling, resource allocation, and execution on demand.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?
- A. IAM
- B. SIM
- C. Xpanse
- D. IIDP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Xpanse is a tool from Palo Alto Networks that provides attack surface management by analyzing exposed services and internet-facing assets, giving security operations teams visibility into environmental risks and helping prioritize remediation of vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?
- A. It encrypts application data to protect the system from external threats.
- B. It allows only trusted files, applications, and processes to run.
- C. It allows safe use of applications by scanning files for malware.
- D. It creates a set of specific applications that do not run on the system.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Application allow listing is a security practice that permits only pre-approved (trusted) applications, files, and processes to run on a system. This approach helps prevent unauthorized or malicious software from executing, thereby reducing the attack surface.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?
- A. Alerts for new code introduction
- B. Integration with threat feeds
- C. Real-time protection from threats
- D. Continuous monitoring of resources
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM), including Prisma Cloud's offering, continuously monitors all cloud resources - such as compute instances, storage, network configurations, and identities - to detect misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, and potential threats in near real time.
NEW QUESTION # 25
What is the function of an endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool?
- A. To ingest alert data from network devices
- B. To provide organizations with expertise for monitoring network devices
- C. To monitor activities and behaviors for investigation of security incidents on user devices
- D. To integrate data from different products in order to provide a holistic view of security posture
Answer: C
Explanation:
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) tools monitor, record, and analyze endpoint activity to detect suspicious behavior, investigate incidents, and respond to threats on user devices such as laptops and desktops.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which feature of cloud-native security platforms (CNSPs) focuses on protecting virtual machine (VM), container, and serverless deployments against application-level attacks during runtime?
- A. Asset inventory
- B. Configuration assessment
- C. Workload security
- D. Data security
Answer: C
Explanation:
Workload security in a Cloud-Native Security Platform (CNSP) focuses on protecting VMs, containers, and serverless deployments against application-level attacks during runtime. It ensures that workloads remain secure by monitoring behavior, enforcing policies, and detecting threats in real time.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which endpoint protection security option can prevent malware from executing software?
- A. Dynamic access control
- B. URL filtering
- C. DNS Security
- D. Application allow list
Answer: D
Explanation:
An application allow list prevents malware from executing by only permitting approved applications to run on an endpoint. Any unauthorized or unknown software, including malicious programs, is automatically blocked from executing.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which two workflows are improved by integrating SIEMs with other security solutions? (Choose two.)
- A. Initial security team training
- B. Log normalization
- C. Hardware procurement
- D. Incident response
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Log normalization - SIEMs standardize log formats from various sources, making it easier to analyze and correlate security events.
Incident response - Integration enables faster detection, investigation, and automated or guided response to security incidents by using correlated data from multiple tools.
Hardware procurement and security team training are not directly influenced by SIEM integration.
NEW QUESTION # 29
What are two characteristics of an advanced persistent threat (APT)? (Choose two.)
- A. Multiple attack vectors
- B. Tendency to isolate hosts
- C. Repeated pursuit of objective
- D. Reduced interaction time
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Multiple attack vectors - APTs often use various methods (phishing, malware, lateral movement) to infiltrate and maintain access to a target.
Repeated pursuit of objective - APTs are known for their persistent nature, involving continuous efforts over time to achieve their goals, such as data theft or surveillance.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?
- A. It is placed as a sensor to monitor all network traffic and scan for threats.
- B. It scans a Wi-Fi network for unauthorized access and removes unauthorized devices.
- C. It is installed on an endpoint and inspects the device.
- D. It analyzes network traffic to detect unusual traffic flows and new malware.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Host-Based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) is installed directly on an endpoint device (such as a server or workstation) and monitors local system activity, including processes, file access, and system calls, to detect and prevent malicious behavior.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which type of system is a user entity behavior analysis (UEBA) tool?
- A. Archiving
- B. sandboxing
- C. Active monitoring
- D. Correlating
Answer: C
Explanation:
A User Entity Behavior Analysis (UEBA) tool performs active monitoring by continuously analyzing the behavior of users and entities to detect anomalies that may indicate insider threats, compromised accounts, or malicious activity. It uses machine learning and analytics to identify unusual patterns in real time.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which two statements apply to the SSL/TLS protocol? (Choose two.)
- A. It is a method used to encrypt data and authenticate web-based communication.
- B. It provides administrator privileges to manage and control the access of network resources.
- C. It ensures the data that is transferred between a client and a server remains private.
- D. It contains password characters that users enter to access encrypted data.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
SSL/TLS encrypts and authenticates web-based communication to ensure secure data transmission over networks. It ensures privacy by encrypting the data exchanged between a client and a server, protecting it from interception or tampering. It doesn't handle user input like passwords directly.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which product functions as part of a SASE solution?
- A. Cortex
- B. Prisma SD-WAN
- C. Kubernetes
- D. Prisma Cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
Prisma SD-WAN is a key component of a SASE (Secure Access Service Edge) solution. It provides intelligent routing, traffic optimization, and secure connectivity between users and applications, supporting the networking part of SASE alongside security services like those in Prisma Access.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which type of attack includes exfiltration of data as a primary objective?
- A. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
- B. Advanced persistent threat
- C. Denial-of-service (DoS)
- D. Watering hole attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
An Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) is a long-term, targeted cyberattack where data exfiltration is often the primary objective. Attackers maintain a covert presence in the network to steal sensitive information over time.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)
- A. They are larger than spamming or DDoS botnets.
- B. They are used by attackers to build their own botnets.
- C. They are a defense against spam attacks.
- D. They are sold as kits that allow attackers to license the code.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
SaaS financial botnets are often sold as kits, enabling attackers to license and reuse the malicious code easily.
These kits allow attackers to build and operate their own botnets, often targeting financial data or systems.
Financial botnets are typically smaller but more targeted than spamming or DDoS botnets. Botnets are not a defense mechanism, but rather a threat.
NEW QUESTION # 36
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- 2026 Latest Pass4sureCert PCCP PDF and PCCP Exam Dumps Free Share: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1ul3sV7AuzmIHOntZ8DA3os2xXUv_h4ah
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